James 1:13-14 says:
Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am being tempted by God,” for God cannot be tempted with evil, and he himself tempts no one. But each person is tempted when he is lured and enticed by his own desire (ESV).
The NIV translates epithumia as “evil desires”, although whilst the word can have the sense of lust and so is associated with concupiscence, it does have the simple meaning of desires and affections.
Can we read from James 1 that our desires are themselves sinful and therefore that temptation is itself sin.? I think that we can observe a close connection between desire, temptation and sin itself if it is the desire that in effect tempts. However, as with previous examples, I’m not convinced that this means that the desires are in and of themselves sin. Rather, this again points to the disordered nature of post fall humanity. Our desires and confused, disordered, corrupted and so we find ourselves longing for the wrong things and seeking them in the wrong way. In other words, we fail to seek God’s kingdom and righteousness first, trusting that all other good things will be added. So, the desire tempts when it draws (“lures”/ “drags) and distracts us away from God’s priorities.
Desire has in effect been given personality and agency here and there may be something in this about the fallen human nature, or “flesh”. However, I’m not convinced that this is meant to over abstract the nature of temptation as though it is a kind of impersonal force. Rather, the point is that James is saying that God is not responsible for your sin, you are.
In fact, here is the risk if we take a word from a text and primarily treat it as a source for theological retrieval. This is theological retrieval done badly. We focus on its meaning out of context of what the author is trying to say. James is not offering a lecture on and definition of concupiscence. Rather, to repeat, he is making the point that God is not the author of sin.
Faithroots 